Understanding Pathophysiology 5th Edition Test Bank - Huether

Understanding Pathophysiology 5th Edition Test Bank – Huether

$29.99

 

Understanding Pathophysiology 5th Edition Test Bank – Huether

What: TEST BANK
Year Published: 2011
Authors: Huether
Edition: 5th

Product Description

Understanding Pathophysiology 5th Edition Test Bank – Huether

Understanding Pathophysiology 5th Edition Test Bank – Huether

Sample

Huether and McCance: Understanding Pathophysiology, 5th Edition Chapter 09: Biology, Clinical Manifestations, and Treatment of Cancer
Test Bank
MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. A patient has a tissue growth that was diagnosed as cancer. Which of the following terms best describes this growth?
a. Neoplasm
b. Lipoma

c. Meningioma d. Hypertrophy

ANS: A
A neoplasm is a cancerous growth.
Lipomas are benign growths.
A meningioma is a benign tumor.
Hypertrophy refers to tissue overgrowth, but not cancer.

REF: p. 222

2. Which information indicates a nurse understands characteristics of malignant tumors? a. Grows slowly
b. Has a well-defined capsule
c. Has a high mitotic index

d. Is well-differentiated

ANS: C
Malignant tumors have a high mitotic index. Malignant tumors grow rapidly.
Malignant tumors are not encapsulated. Malignant tumors are poorly-differentiated.

REF: p. 223

3. A nurse is discussing preinvasive epithelial tumors of glandular or squamous cell origin. What is the nurse describing?
a. Tumor in differentiation
b. Dysplastic

c. Cancer in situ
d. Cancer beyond (meta) situ

ANS: C
Early stage growths that are localized to the epithelium and have not invaded are called cancer in situ.
Cancer in situ is early stage growth and not a tumor in differentiation.

Mosby items and derived items © 2012 Mosby, Inc., an imprint of Elsevier Inc.

Test Bank 9-2

Cancer in situ is early stage growth and may contain dysplastic cells, but dysplastic cells do not define cancer in situ.
Cancer in situ is early stage growth, and cancer beyond situ is more mature growth.

REF: p. 223

4. A 25-year-old male develops a tumor of the breast glandular tissue. What type of tumor will be documented on the chart?
a. Carcinoma
b. Adenocarcinoma

c. Sarcoma
d. Lymphoma

ANS: B
Tumors that arise from or form ductal or glandular structures are named adenocarcinomas. Cancers arising in epithelial tissue are called carcinomas.
Cancers arising from mesenchymal tissue (including connective tissue, muscle, and bone) usually have the suffix sarcoma.
Cancers of lymphatic tissue are called lymphomas.

REF: p. 223

5. A 30-year-old female is diagnosed with cancer. Testing reveals that the cancer cells have spread to local lymph nodes. A nurse realizes this cancer would be documented as stage: a. 1
b. 2

c. 3 d. 4

ANS: C
Cancer that has spread to regional structures, such as lymph nodes, is stage 3.
Cancer confined to the organ of origin is stage 1.
Cancer that is locally invasive is stage 2.
Cancer that has spread to distant sites, such as a liver cancer spreading to lung or a prostate cancer spreading to bone, is stage 4.

REF: p. 244

6. An oncologist is discussing when a cancer cell loses differentiation. Which of the following is the oncologist describing?
a. Autonomy
b. Anaplasia

c. Pleomorphic d. Metastasis

ANS: B
Anaplasia is the loss of differentiation.
The loss of differentiation is anaplasia, not autonomy.

Mosby items and derived items © 2012 Mosby, Inc., an imprint of Elsevier Inc.

Test Bank 9-3

Malignant cells are pleomorphic.
A malignant tumor’s ability to spread far beyond the tissue of origin is metastasis.

REF: p. 223

7. A primary care provider is attempting to diagnose cancer and is looking for a tumor marker. Which of the following could be a possible marker?
a. Red blood cells
b. Apoptotic cells

c. Enzymes
d. Neurotransmitters

ANS: C
Tumor markers include hormones, enzymes, genes, antigens, and antibodies.
Tumor markers include hormones, enzymes, genes, antigens, and antibodies, but not red blood cells.
Tumor markers include hormones, enzymes, genes, antigens, and antibodies, but not apoptotic cells.
Tumor markers include hormones, enzymes, genes, antigens, and antibodies, but not neurotransmitters.

REF: p. 225

8. A 52-year-old male with hepatitis C recently developed hepatic cancer. Which of the following markers should be increased?
a. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
b. Catecholamines

c. Prostate-specific antigen d. Homovanillic acid

ANS: A
Liver and germ cell tumors secrete a protein known as AFP.
Liver and germ cell tumors secrete a protein known as AFP, not catecholamines. Prostate tumors secrete prostate-specific antigen.
Homovanillic acid is a catecholamine marker.

REF: p. 225

9. Which information should the nurse include when teaching about angiogenic factors? In cancer, angiogenic factors stimulate:
a. Release of growth factors
b. Tumor regression

c. Apoptosis
d. New blood vessel growth

ANS: D
Cancers can secrete multiple factors that stimulate new blood vessel growth, which is called angiogenesis.

Mosby items and derived items © 2012 Mosby, Inc., an imprint of Elsevier Inc.

Test Bank 9-4

Cancers can secrete multiple factors that stimulate new blood vessel growth called angiogenesis, not release of growth factors.
Cancers can secrete multiple factors that stimulate new blood vessel growth called angiogenesis, not tumor regression.

Apoptosis is cell death.

REF: p. 235

10. A patient has been researching telomere caps on the Internet. Which statement indicates the patient has a good understanding? Presence of telomere caps gives cancer cells:
a. The ability to divide over and over again
b. Clonal distinction

c. Limited mitosis d. Mutation abilities

ANS: A
The presence of telomere caps gives cancer cells the ability to divide over and over. The presence of telomere caps does not give cells clonal distinction.
Telomeres allow division over and over; thus, cancer cells have unlimited mitosis. Mutation capability is a characteristic of cancer cells, but this property is not related to telomeres.

REF: pp. 235-236

11. Which of the following indicates a nurse understands a proto-oncogene? A proto-oncogene is best defined as a(n) _____ gene.
a. Normal
b. Altered

c. Inactive
d. Tumor-suppressor

ANS: A
In its normal, nonmutant state, an oncogene is referred to as a proto-oncogene. A proto-oncogene is a normal gene, not an altered gene.
A proto-oncogene is a normal gene, not an inactive gene.
A proto-oncogene is a normal gene, not a tumor-suppressor gene.

REF: p. 229

12. Of the following genetic lesions that cause cancer, which is the most common? a. Insertions

b. Deletions
c. Point mutations d. Amplification

ANS: C
Several types of genetic events can activate oncogenes. The most common are small scale changes in DNA called point mutations.

Mosby items and derived items © 2012 Mosby, Inc., an imprint of Elsevier Inc.

Test Bank 9-5

Several types of genetic events can activate oncogenes. The most common are small scale changes in DNA called point mutations, not insertions.
Several types of genetic events can activate oncogenes. The most common are small scale changes in DNA called point mutations, not deletions.

Several types of genetic events can activate oncogenes. The most common are small scale changes in DNA called point mutations, not amplification.

REF: p. 229

13. A 45-year-old female was recently diagnosed with cervical cancer. She reports a sexual history that includes 43 partners. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her cancer?
a. Herpes virus

b. Rubella virus
c. Human papillomavirus (HPV) d. Hepatitis B virus

ANS: C
The presence of HPV is a factor in cervical cancer.
The presence of HPV is a factor in cervical cancer, not herpes. The presence of HPV is a factor in cervical cancer, not rubella. The presence of HPV is a factor in cervical cancer, not hepatitis B.

REF: p. 241

14. A 30-year-old male with HIV is diagnosed with Epstein-Barr virus. After 2 months, the virus is still active. Based upon the Epstein-Barr virus, which of the following cancers is most likely to develop in this patient?
a. B cell lymphoma

b. Kaposi sarcoma c. T cell leukemia d. T cell lipoma

ANS: A
Epstein-Barr virus is associated with B cell lymphoma. Kaposi sarcoma is associated with HIV.
Retroviruses are associated with leukemia.
Lipomas are not associated with HIV.

REF: p. 241

15. A 45-year-old male presents with persistent, severe stomach pain. Testing reveals a peptic ulcer. Further laboratory tests reveal the presence of Helicobacter pylori. Which of the following is of concern for this patient?
a. Gastric cancer

b. Leukemia
c. Lung cancer

Mosby items and derived items © 2012 Mosby, Inc., an imprint of Elsevier Inc.

Test Bank 9-6

d. Adenocarcinoma of the colon

ANS: A
The presence of Helicobacter pylori is associated with gastric cancer.
The presence of Helicobacter pylori is associated with gastric cancer, not leukemia. The presence of Helicobacter pylori is associated with gastric cancer, not lung cancer. The presence of Helicobacter pylori is associated with gastric cancer, not colon cancer.

REF: p. 241

16. Which statement indicates the patient has a correct understanding of metastasis? The most common route of metastasis is through the blood vessels and:
a. Lung tissue
b. Body cavities

c. Lymphatics
d. Connective tissues

ANS: C
The most common route of metastasis is through the lymphatics.
The most common route of metastasis is through the lymphatics, not lung tissue.
The most common route of metastasis is through the lymphatics, not the body cavity. The most common route of metastasis if through the lymphatics, not connective tissues.

REF: p. 242

17. A nurse is giving an example of inflammation as an etiology for cancer development. What is the best example the nurse should give?
a. Pneumonia and lung cancer
b. Ulcerative colitis and colon cancer

c. Prostatic hypertrophy and prostate cancer d. Hypercholesteremia and leukemia

ANS: B
Individuals with a 10+ year history of ulcerative colitis have a 30-fold increase in developing colon cancer.
There is no relationship between pneumonia and lung cancer, but there is a relationship between ulcerative colitis and colon cancer.
There is no relationship between prostatic hypertrophy and cancer of the prostate, but there is a relationship between ulcerative colitis and colon cancer.
There is no relationship between hypercholesteremia and leukemia, but there is a relationship between ulcerative colitis and colon cancer.

REF: p. 240

18. A patient asks when adjuvant chemotherapy is used. How should the nurse respond? Adjuvant chemotherapy treatment is used:
a. As the primary treatment
b. Before radiation therapy

Mosby items and derived items © 2012 Mosby, Inc., an imprint of Elsevier Inc.

Test Bank 9-7

c. After surgical removal of a tumor
d. In cancer with little risk of metastasis

ANS: C
Adjuvant chemotherapy is given after surgical excision of a cancer with the goal of eliminating micrometastases.
Adjuvant chemotherapy is given after surgery, not as the primary treatment. Adjuvant chemotherapy is given after surgery, not before radiation therapy. Adjuvant chemotherapy is given after surgery and is indicated in the treatment of individuals with metastasis.

REF: pp. 248-249

MULTIPLE RESPONSE

1. Brachytherapy is being used to treat cancer in a patient. What type of cancers responds well to brachytherapy? (Select all that apply.)
a. Heart
b. Cervix

c. Head d. Neck e. Lung

ANS: B, C, D
Radiation sources can be temporarily placed into body cavities through a delivery method termed brachytherapy. Brachytherapy is useful in the treatment of cervical, prostate, and head and neck cancers.

REF: p. 249

Mosby items and derived items © 2012 Mosby, Inc., an imprint of Elsevier Inc.

 

 

Understanding Pathophysiology 5th Edition Test Bank – Huether

Reviews

There are no reviews yet.

Be the first to review “Understanding Pathophysiology 5th Edition Test Bank – Huether”

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *